4 Feb
2014
4 Feb
'14
6:24 p.m.
If ISP has customer A with multiple *known* valid networks --doesn't matter if ISP allocated them to customer or not-- and ISP lets them all out, but filters everything else, ISP is still complying with BCP 38.
Of course. The question is how the ISP knows what the customer's address ranges are, without demanding vast amounts of nitpicky manual work on both sides. Regards, John Levine, johnl@iecc.com, Primary Perpetrator of "The Internet for Dummies", Please consider the environment before reading this e-mail. http://jl.ly