An IPv6-only ISP with enough IPv4 addresses for its concurrent online users seems strange. Why wouldn't that ISP give those v4 addresses to
-----Original Message----- From: JAKO Andras [mailto:jako.andras@eik.bme.hu] Sent: Wednesday, October 03, 2007 8:59 PM To: Church, Charles Cc: nanog@merit.edu Subject: RE: Access to the IPv4 net for IPv6-only systems, was: Re: WG Action: Conclusion of IP Version 6 (ipv6) the
online users instead of the NAT-PT box? And why do you call it IPv6-only?
Andras
Because not all users are online at the same time. Think back to the days where you had x number of dialup lines for y number of subscribers. It might be a 2:1 ratio. Maybe more, depending on how many time zones an ISP serves. It's not a huge plus, but once IPv4 content providers can see where x% of their web hits are coming from these NAT-PT blocks, they might be more motivated to go dual-stack. Chuck