On Tue, Feb 4, 2014 at 6:24 PM, John R. Levine <johnl@iecc.com> wrote:
If ISP has customer A with multiple *known* valid networks --doesn't matter if ISP allocated them to customer or not-- and ISP lets them all out, but filters everything else, ISP is still complying with BCP 38.
Of course. The question is how the ISP knows what the customer's address ranges are, without demanding vast amounts of nitpicky manual work on both sides.
Hi John, "whois 1.2.3.4" Why does it have to be hard? Restricting the filter to addresses which (A) the customer asserts are theirs and (B) aren't obviously registered to someone else would more than solve the problem. Regards, Bill Herrin -- William D. Herrin ................ herrin@dirtside.com bill@herrin.us 3005 Crane Dr. ...................... Web: <http://bill.herrin.us/> Falls Church, VA 22042-3004