20 Nov
2000
20 Nov
'00
6:14 p.m.
Dennis Glatting [dennis.glatting@software-munitions.com] wrote:
Dumb question:
Could filtering be considered a violation of First Amendment rights? Furthermore, when is it and when is it not?
Uh, I think that might be taking things a little too far. I really think the only law involved -might- be contractual (IE, 'our contract says they our connect is unfiltered' or some such). You can sign contracts that limit your speech (NDA's, for instance), so I don't really see this as a First Amendment thing. Mike -- Mike Johnson Network Engineer / iSun Networks, Inc. Morrisville, NC All opinions are mine, not those of my employer