A simpler question(s) than it sounds: Customer just brought up their first BGP session at a new location. It is up fine with a full routing table, the second provider hookup is a few weeks away. The provider allocated a /24 (x.x.1.0/24) for the network and a /30 for the PTP connection (x.x.129.172/30). For the initial setup, I did not configure a loopback, I just put x.x.129.174 on the WAN interface and set up the neighbor as x.x.129.173. It's working fine. We will need to set up a L2TPV3 tunnel to their old location (single homed, no BGP on that side). Upon initial reading of Cisco docs to do this, we will need a routable IP on a loopback interface for starters. Using one from the /24 LAN is out unless we subnet it, which we don't want to do. So the question is, can I just "move" the PTP IP address x.x.129.174 from the WAN interface to the loopback like this? interface Loopback0 ip address x.x.129.174 255.255.255.252 (that's the mask we're using on the WAN- Cisco's loopback examples show .255) interface WAN1 (actually a gigether) ip unnumbered loopback0 (or no ip addr?) neighbor x.x.128.173 update-source Loopback0 Does this look even close to right? Or do we need another, single routabe IP from the provider for the loopback? Also, I am assuming we don't need separate loopback interfaces for BGP as for the Bridge/Tunnel. What about when the second provider comes up? A second or third loopback to nail up their WAN IP? ***OR*** is there a way to put their WAN I/F IP on the loopback and take it off their LAN Ether...and then do IP unnum loop0 on the LAN? TIA, James Smallacombe PlantageNet, Inc. CEO and Janitor up@3.am http://3.am =========================================================================